B 1. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered: a. pharmacologically active c. free drugs b. pharmacologically inactive d. bioavailable drugs D 2. Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when placed in an acidic solution can result in: a. conversion into free acid c. insolubility b. precipitation of penicillin d. all of the above A 3. In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, Filipinos are considered: a. fast acetylators c. neither slow nor fast b. slow acetylators d. same as the Caucasians B 4. The following are true regarding incompatibilities, except: a. problems arising during compounding, dispensing and dispensing and drug administration b. easier to correct than to prevent c. may be intentional or unintentional d. must be recognized by pharmacists A 5. The following are guidelines for reducing drug interactions, except: a. employ combination therapy c. educate the patient b. identify patient risk factors d. know properties of drugs B 6. Enzyme inhibition of coumarins can lead to: a. hypoglycemia c. blood clotting b. profuse bleeding d. convulsion B 7. Anaphylaxis is a: a. Type A ADR c. Type E ADR b. Type B ADR d. Type F ADR B 8. Oxidizing agents are incompatible with reducing agents. This is a: a. physical incompatability b. chemical imcompatability c. therapeutic incompatibility d. both A &B A 9. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a casual relationahip with the treatment is called an: a. adverse drug reaction c. adverse drug event b. therapeutic incompatibility d. none of the above D 10. Teratogenicity is a/an: a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR b. Type B ADR d. Type D ADR B 11. The following are true about biotransformation except: a. occurs after drug distribution c. converts lipophilic to hydrophilic drugs b. converts polar to nonpolar drugs d. can influence drug elimination rate A 12. The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibilities except: a. immiscibility c. gel formation b. photolysis d. evolution of gas B 13. The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when highly soluble salts are added is known as: a. polymorphism c. racemization b. salting-out d. eutexia D 14. Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a “cake” at the bottom of the container. This manifestation is known as: a. gelatinization cb. hydrolysis D 15. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in: da. anemia cb. hypertension C 16. A mathematical model for a potentiating drug effect: da. 1 + 1 = 2 cb. 1 + 1 = 3 C 17. A remedy for tablet granulations containing vitamin C: da. prepare by dry granulation cb. use precoated ascorbic acid granules d D 18. Chloramphenicol palmitate exists in 3 different polymorphs, each differ in the ff. properties, except: a. solubility c. melting point b. free energy d. none of the above D 19. The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug reaction, except: a. reducing gastric emptying rate b. milk reduces absorption of tetracycline c. tea increases absortion of paracetamol d. vegetables potentiate anticoagulants D 20. Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug reaction, except: a. congenital hypersensitivities c. metabolic abnormality b. genetic or hereditary in origin d. none of the above D 21. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO inhibitors) and foods rich in tyramine like cheese will lead to: a. accumulation of pressor amines c. non-metabolism of tyramine b. increase in blood pressure d. all of the above C 22. The following condition/s will amplify the activity of cardiac glycosides: a. hypercalcemia c. both a & b b. hypokalemia d. none of the above A 23. Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of the other drug. a. pharmacokinetic interactions c. pharmacodynamic interaction b. pharmacologic interactions d. all of the above D 24. Displacement of a plasma-protein bound drug such as in Warfarin-phenylbutazone interaction, results in: a. hemorrhage c. decreased activity of warfarin b. increase concentration of warfarin d. both A & B D 25. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme inducers. As a consequence, a. one needs to increase dose of drug c. this is an ADR b. this leads to drug tolerance d. all of the above B 26. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides: a. Parkinson’s disease c. hypertension b. Steven’s Johnson syndrome d. contact dermatitis D 27. The following are true regarding excretion of acidic drugs except: a. exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine b. exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine c. acidic urine increases drug action d. none of the above A 28. Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are __________of coumarins. a. enzyme inducers c. antagonists b. enzyme inhibitors d. agonists B 29. Type F ADRs can occur as a result of the following except: a. antimicrobial drug resistance c. counterfeit drugs b. patient compliance d. drug instability C 30. Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug reaction: a. agranucytosis c. both A & B b. Gray syndrome d. none of the above A 31. A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by the sudden release of endotoxins from various killed microorganisms is called: a. Herxheimer reaction c. skin reaction b. Lyell’s syndrome d. anaphylactic reaction A 32. Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will form: a. eutectic combination c. explosive combination b. liquefaction d. both A & B A 33. The manifestation in no. 32 is a result of a: a. therapeutic incompatibility c. physical incompatibility b. chemical incompatibility d. adverse drug reaction B 34. The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma: a. lipoprotein c. glycoprotein b. albumin d. none of the above C 35. Side effects of streptomycin: a. headache c. ototoxicity b. dryness of the mouth d. none of the above A 36. The following is/are true regarding absorption of salicylic acid: a. non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable b. ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable c. polar form is more readily absorbed d. absorption is increased when taken with an antacid A. 37. UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using: a. amber bottle c. flint glass b. plastic container d. carton box D 38. Oxidation is: a. loss of electrons c. cause of drug instability b. dehydrogenation d. all of the above B 39. The transport of a substance from one part of the body to another by means of blood: a. absorption c. metabolism b. distribution d. excretion D 40. The following are possible remedies for liquefaction of solid substances except: a. triturate separately and mix by tumbling b. add adsorbents to liquid combination c. dispense powders separately d. incorporate cotton in packaging D 41. The following type/s of incompatibility may be dispensed: a. intentional incompatability b. unintentional incompatability c. delayed chemical incomp., but within shelf-life of product d. both A & C B 42. The conversion of an optically active form to an optically inactive form is called: a. polymorphism c. polymerization b. racemization d. enantiomorphism D 43. Precipitation can be: a. physical incompatibility c. adverse drug reaction b. chemical incompatability d. A or B C 44. Examples of co-solvents: a. water, butanol c. glycols, sorbitol, glycerol b. alcohol, mineral oil d. acetone, water, alcohol C 45. Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral contraceptives can lead to: a. decreased Phenobarbital action c. unreliable contraception b. increased oral contraceptives action d. none of the above A 46. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the drug metabolized in the liver: a. first pass effect c. biotransformation b. drug-receptorinteraction d. pharmacokinetics B 47. These are functions of a pharmacist except: a. rug information c. counseling on medications b. diagnosis d. monitor drug response A 48. A physiological or a psychological state resulting from drug administration a. drug dependence c. drug addiction b. drug habituation d. drug tolerance B 49. An ADR experienced as a consequence of receiving an inappropriately high dose of the drug due to patient characteristics: a. idiosyncracy cb. extension effect dD 50. The ff. is/are characteristic/s of side effects: a. dose-dependent c. associated pharmacological effect b. predictable d. all of the above C 51. Oral antihistamines exhibit the following side effect: a. drowsiness c. both A & B b. sleepiness d. anemia B 52. Prescriber of a prescription: a. pharmacist c. nurse b. veterinarian d. medical technologist D 53. Compounding is concerned with: a. supply of a medicine c. order for medicine b. preparation & distribution of drugs d. preparation of medicine C 54. The supply of medicine to an individual patient in accordance to the prescription given by the physician: a. compounding cb. formulation C 55. A prescription should be refused when: da. patient is terribly sick cb. there is no available delivery service A 56. An example of a subscription: da. M. ft. sol. cb. 1 tab q 6 hrs B 57. A filled prescription for ethical drugs must be: da. returned to the patient cb. filed for future reference dD 58. Which of these drug products require a physician’s prescription? a. Aspirin 325 mg tab c. Nubain 10 mg/vial b. Paracetamol 500 mg Tab d. both B & C C 59. Which of the ff. correctly applies to this group of drug products? Paracetamol 325 mg. Tab, Cortal 325 mg Tab, Alvedon 325 mg Tab a. all are generically equivalent c. all are non-prescription drugs b. all are in brand names d. all are prescription drugs C 60. Because it is the language of medical science throughout the world, this language is still used in Rx writing: a. English c. Latin b. German d. Spanish B 61. The prescription should be read and checked: a. infront of the patient/customer c. in the counter of the botica b. in the privacy of the pharmacy d. none of the above B 62. For dispensing thick viscous liquids, the container should be: a. standard prescription c. collapsible tubes b. wide-mouthed bottles d. dropper bottles A 63. When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is: a. erroneous prescription c. impossible prescription b. violative prescription d. none of the above C 64. Generic dispensing means: a. dispensing drugs with generic names only b. dispensing with correct prescription c. dispensing the costumer’s choice from generally equivalent drugs d. dispensing drugs in proper containers D 65. When dispensing a compounded prescription, these information must be written on the label except: a. indications c. name of manufacturer b. name and strength of actives d. name of physician B 66. In a prescription, the dispensing directions to the pharmacist is the: a. superscription c. inscription b. subscription d. signa B 67. How many mL will you dispense for a prescription calling for a 100 g of a liquid substance with a sp.gr. of 1.25? a. 75 mL c. 85 mL b. 80 mL d. 90 mL B 68. Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the right dose and using the right route of administration to the right patient is: a. primary care cb. ration
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