Started on Monday, July 27, 2020, 5:52 PM
State  | Finished
Completed on Monday, July 27, 2020, 7:39 PM
Time taken 1 hour 47 mins

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The nurse admits a patient to the critical care unit following a motorcycle crash.
Assessment findings by the nurse include blood pressure 100/50 mm Hg, heart
rate 58 beats/min, respiratory rate 30 breaths/min, and temperature of 100.5°F.
The patient is lethargic, responds to voice but falls asleep readily when not
stimulated. Which nursing action is most important to include in this patient’s
plan of care?
Select one:
a. Frequent neurological assessments
b. Range-of-motion to extremities
c. Frequent oropharyngeal suctioning
d. Side to side position changes
Question 2
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The nurse is caring for a burn-injured patient who weighs 154 pounds, and the
burn injury covers 40% of his body surface area. The nurse calculates the fluid
needs for the first 24 hours after a burn injury using a standard fluid
resuscitation formula of 4 mL/kg/% burn of intravenous (IV) fluid for the first
24 hours. The nurse plans to administer what amount of fluid in the first 24
hours?
Select one:
a. 2800 ml
b. 14000 ml
c. 11200 ml
d. 7000 ml
Question 3
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For patients with major burns, when should you start enteral feedings?
Select one:
a. A few hours after the injury has occurred
b. Not until bowel sounds have returned
c. 2 to 3 days after the injury
d. After the emergent phase of the injury
Question 4
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After receiving the handoff report from the day shift charge nurse, which patient
should the evening charge nurse assess first?
Select one:
a. A patient with bacterial meningitis on droplet precautions
b. Mechanically ventilated patient with a GCS of 6
c. Patient with meningitis complaining of photophobia
d. A patient with an intracranial pressure ICP of 20 mm Hg and an oral temperature of
104°F
Question 5
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The charge nurse assigns patients based on their acuity and the level of
experience of the critical care nurses on duty. This is an example of
implementation of:
Select one:
a. National patient safety goals
b. Healthy work environment
c. SBAR communication
d. Synergy model
Question 6
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While caring for a patient with a basilar skull fracture, the nurse assesses clear
drainage from the patient’s left naris. What is the best nursing action?
Select one:
a. Place a nasal drip pad under the nose.
b. Have the patient blow the nose until clear.
c. Suction the left nares until the drainage clears.
d. Insert bilateral cotton nasal packing.
Question 7
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The nurse is caring for a patient who was hit on the head with a hammer. The
patient was unconscious at the scene briefly but is now conscious upon arrival at
the emergency department with a GCS score of 15. One hour later, the nurse
assesses a GCS score of 3. What is the priority nursing action?
Select one:
a. stimulate the patient hourly.
b. Continue to monitor the patient.
c. Elevate the head of the bed.
d. Notify the provider immediately.
Question 8
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The nurse is caring for a patient who has a diminished level of consciousness and
who is mechanically ventilated. While performing endotracheal suctioning, the
patient’s hands clench and pull into the chest. What is the best interpretation by
the nurse?
Select one:
a. The patient is exhibiting decorticate posturing.
b. The patient is exhibiting extension posturing.
c. The patient is exhibiting flexion posturing.
d. The patient is exhibiting purposeful movement.
Question 9
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Which of the following would be seen in a patient with myxedema coma?
Select one:
a. Hyperthermia
b. Tachycardia
c. Hyperventilation
d. Decreased reflexes
Question 10
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A patient presents to the emergency department with suspected thyroid storm.
The nurse should be alert to which of the following cardiac rhythms while
providing care to this patient?
Select one:
a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Idioventricular rhythm
d. Junctional rhythm
Question 11
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A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of diabetic
ketoacidosis. Following aggressive fluid resuscitation and intravenous (IV)
insulin administration, the blood glucose begins to normalize. In addition to
glucose monitoring, which of the following electrolytes requires close
monitoring?
Select one:
a. Potassium
b. Sodium
c. Chloride
d. Calcium
Question 12
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diabetic ketoacidosis, the laboratory results are similar to those of hyperosmolar
hyperglycemic syndrome, with three major exceptions. What differences would
you expect to see in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis?
Select one:
a. Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and higher ketosis
b. Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and higher ketosis
c. Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and no ketosis
d. Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and no ketosis
Question 13
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A patient presents to the emergency department with the following clinical signs:
Pulse: 132 beats/min, Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg, Respiratory rate: 32
breaths/min, Blood sugar of 60, fatigue, dizziness and darkening of skin. These
signs are consistent with which disorder?
Select one:
a. Thyroid Storm
b. Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
c. Myxedema coma
d. Adrenal Crisis
Question 14
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Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar
hyperglycemic syndrome?
Select one:
a. A 45-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes who forgets to take her insulin in the
morning
b. An 83-year-old, long-term care resident with type 1 diabetes and new onset
Alzheimer’s disease.
c. An 18-year-old college student with type 2 diabetes who was diagnosed with the flu
d. A 75-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease who has
recently started on insulin injections
Question 15
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The nurse assesses a patient with a skull fracture to have a Glasgow Coma Scale
score of 3. Additional vital signs assessed by the nurse include blood pressure
100/70 mm Hg, heart rate 55 beats/min, respiratory rate 10 breaths/min, oxygen
saturation (SpO2) 94% on oxygen at 3 L per nasal cannula. What is the priority
nursing action?
Select one:
a. Monitor the patient’s airway patency.
b. Support bony prominences with padding.
c. Increase supplemental oxygen delivery.
d. Elevate the head of the patient’s bed.
Question 16
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Which of the following statements is true about the medical management of
diabetic ketoacidosis?
Select all that apply
Select one or more:
a. Sodium bicarbonate is used to correct severe acidosis.
b. The degree of acidosis is assessed through continuous pulse oximetry.
c. Volume replacement and insulin infusion often correct the acidosis.
d. Blood glucose levels are used to guide insulin administration.
Question 17
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Which of the following laboratory values would be found in a patient with
syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone?
Select one:
a. Fasting blood glucose 156 mg/dL
b. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
c. Urinary sodium 22 mEq/L
d. Serum sodium 152 mEq/L
Question 18
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A college student was admitted to the emergency department after being found
unconscious by a roommate. The roommate informs emergency medical
personnel that the student has diabetes and has been experiencing flulike
symptoms, including vomiting, since yesterday. The patient had been up all night
studying for exams. The patient used the last diabetes testing supplies 3 days ago
and has not had time to go to the pharmacy to refill prescription supplies. Based
upon the history, which laboratory findings would be anticipated in this client?
Select all that apply:
Select one or more:
a. pH: 7.40
b. Blood glucose: 524 mg/dL
c. HCO3—: 10 mEq/L
d. Blood glucose: 43 mg/dL
Question 19
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An individual with type 2 diabetes who takes glipizide has begun a formal
exercise program at a local gym. While exercising on the treadmill, the individual
becomes pale, diaphoretic, shaky, and has a headache. The individual feels as
though she is going to pass out. What is the individual’s priority action?
Select one:
a. Drink additional water to prevent dehydration
b. Eat an apple
c. Go to the first-aid station to have glucose checked
d. Take another dose of the glipizide
Question 20
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An elderly female patient has presented to the emergency department with
altered mental status, hypothermia, and clinical signs of heart failure. Myxedema
is suspected. Which of the following laboratory findings support this diagnosis?
Select one:
a. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone
b. Elevated cortisol levels
c. Elevated T3 and T4
d. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone
Question 21
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The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent pituitary surgery 12 hours ago.
The nurse will give priority to monitoring the patient carefully for which of the
following?
Select one:
a. Infection
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Volume overload
d. Diabetes Insipidus
Question 22
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Which of the following interventions is a strategy to prevent fat embolism
syndrome?
Select one:
a. Stabilize extremity fractures early.
b. Intubate the patient early after the injury to provide mechanical ventilation.
c. Administer lipid-lowering statin medications.
d.
Provide prophylaxis with low–molecular weight heparin.
Question 23
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A 36-year-old driver was pulled from a car after it collided with a tree and the
gas tank exploded. What assessment data suggest the patient suffered tissue
damage consistent with a blast injury?
Select one:
a. Crackles (rales) on auscultation of bilateral lung fields
b. Irregular heart rate and rhythm
c. Responsive only to painful stimuli
d. Blood pressure 82/60 mm Hg, heart rate 122 beats/min, respiratory rate 28
breaths/min
Question 24
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Which of the following statements are true regarding fluid resuscitation during
the care of a trauma patient?
Select all that apply
Select one or more:
a. Only fully crossmatched blood products are administered
b. Lactated Ringer’s is recommended for rapid crystalloid infusion.
c. Massive transfusions should be avoided to improve patient outcomes.
d. IV fluids may need to be warmed to prevent hypothermia.
Question 25
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Which of the following statements about mass casualty triage during a disaster is
true?
Select one:
a. Priority treatments and interventions focus primarily on young victims.
b. Color-coded systems in which green indicates the patient of greatest need are used
during disasters.
c. Disaster victims with the greatest chances for survival receive priority for treatment.
d. Once interventions have been initiated, health care providers cannot stop the
treatment of disaster victims.
Question 26
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A community-based external disaster is initiated after a tornado moved through
the city. A nurse from the medical records review department arrives at the
emergency department asking how to assist. The best response by a nurse
working for the trauma center would be to
Select one:
a. Thank the nurse but inform her to return to her department as her skill set is not a
good match for patients’ needs.
b. Assign the nurse administrative duties, such as obtaining patient demographic
information.
c. Assign the nurse to a triage room with another nurse from the emergency
department.
d. Have the nurse assist with transport of patients to procedural areas.
Question 27
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An 18-year-old unrestrained passenger who sustained multiple traumatic injuries
from a motor vehicle crash has a blood pressure of 80/60 mm Hg at the scene.
This patient should be treated at which level trauma center?
Select one:
a. Level 1
b. Level IV
c. Level II
d. Level III
Question 28
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Which of the following interventions would not be appropriate for a patient who
is admitted with a suspected basilar skull fracture?
Select one:
a. Insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter
b. Insertion of a nasotracheal tube
c. Placement of an oral airway
d. Endotracheal intubation
Question 29
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The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with new onset of slurred speech,
facial droop, and left-sided weakness 8 hours ago. Diagnostic computed
tomography scan rules out the presence of an intracranial bleed. Which actions
are most important to include in the patient’s plan of care?
Select all that apply
Select one or more:
a. Prepare for thrombolytic administration.
b. Maintain CO2 level at 35-45 mm Hg.
c. Maintain MAP greater than 130 mm Hg.
d. Make frequent neurological assessments.
Question 30
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A patient with a head injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 18 mm Hg.
The blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg, and mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 90
mm Hg. What is the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)?
Select one:
a. 54 mm Hg
b. 126 mm Hg
c. 90 mm Hg
d. 72 mm Hg
Question 31
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The nurse admits a patient to the emergency department (ED) with a suspected
cervical spine injury. What is the priority nursing action?
Select one:
a. Maintain proper head and neck alignment.
b. Keep the neck in the hyperextended position.
c. Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation.
d. Remove cervical collar upon arrival to the ED.
Question 32
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While caring for a patient with a traumatic brain injury, the nurse assesses an
ICP of 20 mm Hg and a CPP of 55 mm Hg. What is the best interpretation by the
nurse?
Select one:
a. ICP is high; CPP is normal.
b. Both pressures are low.
c. ICP is high; CPP is low.
d. Both pressures are high.
Question 33
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The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the emergency department in status
epilepticus. Vital signs assessed by the nurse include blood pressure 160/100 mm
Hg, heart rate 145 beats/min, respiratory rate 36 breaths/min, oxygen saturation
(SpO2) 96% on 100% supplemental oxygen by non-rebreather mask. An IV has
been established and the patient has been given lorazepam, but the seizures
continue. What is the next nursing priority?
Select one:
a. Obtain stat serum electrolytes.
b. Obtain stat portable chest x-ray.
c. Administer 2nd lorazepam dose.
d. Administer phenytoin.
Question 34
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While caring for a patient with a closed head injury, the nurse assesses the
patient to be alert with a blood pressure 130/90 mm Hg, heart rate 60 beats/min,
respirations 18 breaths/min, and a temperature of 102°F. To reduce the risk of
increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in this patient, what is (are) the priority
nursing action(s)?
Select one:
a. Insert an oral airway and monitor respiratory rate and depth.
b. Reduce ambient room temperature and administer antipyretics.
c. Ensure adequate periods of rest between nursing interventions.
d. Maintain neutral head alignment and avoid extreme hip flexion.
Question 35
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The physician has ordered Dopamine to be administered @ a rate of 5
mcg/kg/min. The patient weighs 145 pounds and the drug is sent to the unit as
Dopamine 400 mg in 250 mL D5W. The nurse will set the infusion pump
@ Answer 12 mL/hr.
145 /2.2 =65.90/66 5 mcg * 66 * 60 = 19800
250 /400 = 0.625 1/1000= 0.001 19800/1=19800
0.625 x 0.001 x 19800 = 12.375 /12.4/12ml/hr.
*Round to the nearest mL at the end of the equation
Question 36
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A patient has been admitted to the ICU for alcohol withdrawl and is ordered
lorazepam 10 mg/hr. The pharmacy has sent lorazepam 120 mg in 600 mL of
D5W. The nurse will infuse the medication on the infusion pump @ the rate
of Answer 50 mL/hr
Question 37
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The patient has hypokalemia and is to receive an IV infusion of potassium
chloride. The physician orders the KCl to infuse at a rate of 2 mEq/hr. The
pharmacy sends KCL 40mEq/L in D5W. The nurse will set the infusion pump
@ Answer 50 mL/hr
Question 38
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The physician has ordered nitroglycerin for a patient with chest pain at a rate of
10 mcg/min. The pharmacy provides Nitroglycerin 25 mg in 250 mL of D5W. The
nurse will set the infusion pump @ a rate of Answer 0.1 mL/hr.
250 ml / 25mg= 10 1mg/1000mcg= 0.001 10mcg/1 min= 10 60min /1 hr=60
10 x 0.001 x 10 x 60 = 6 ml/hr.
Question 39
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During the treatment and management of the trauma patient, maintaining tissue
perfusion, oxygenation, and nutritional support are strategies to prevent
Select one:
a. Multisystem organ dysfunction.
b. Wound infection
c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
d. Septic shock.
Question 40
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The nurse has admitted a patient to the ED following a fall from a first-floor
hotel balcony. The patient smells of alcohol and begins to vomit in the ED. Which
of the following interventions is most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Insert an oral airway to prevent aspiration and to protect the airway.
b. Prepare to suction the oropharynx while maintaining cervical spine immobilization.
c. Send a specimen of the emesis to the laboratory for analysis of blood alcohol
content.
d. Offer the patient an emesis basin so that you can measure the amount of emesis.
Question 41
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A 24-year-old unrestrained driver who sustained multiple traumatic injuries
from a motor vehicle crash has a blood pressure of 80/60 mm Hg at the scene.
The primary survey of this patient upon arrival to the ED
Select one:
a. Includes a cervical spine x-ray study to determine the presence of a fracture.
b. Is done quickly in the first few minutes to get a baseline assessment and establish
priorities.
c. Involves turning the patient from side to side to get a look at his back.
d. Is a methodical head-to-toe assessment identifying injuries and treatment priorities.
Question 42
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The nurse is caring for patient who has been struck by lightning. Because of the
nature of the injury, the nurse assesses the patient for which of the following?
Select one:
a. Stress ulcers
b. Infection
c. Contractures
d. Central nervous system deficits
Question 43
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A 63-year-old patient is admitted with new-onset fever; flulike symptoms;
blisters over the arms, chest, and neck; and red, painful oral mucous
membranes. The patient should be further evaluated for which possible non–
burn-injured skin disorder?
Select one:
a. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
b. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
c. Graft-versus-host disease
d. Necrotizing soft tissue infection
Question 44
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When paramedics notice singed hairs in the nose of a burn patient, it is
recommended that the patient be intubated. What is the reasoning for the
immediate intubation?
Select one:
a. The singed hairs and soot in the nostrils will cause dysfunction of cilia in the
airways.
b. Inhalation injury above the glottis may cause significant edema that obstructs the
airway.
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning always occurs when soot is visible.
d. The patient will have a copious amount of mucus that will need to be suctioned.
Question 45
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In patients with extensive burns, edema occurs in both burned and unburned
areas because of
Select one:
a. Decreased glomerular filtration.
b. Loss of integument barrier.
c. Catecholamine-induced vasoconstriction.
d. Increased capillary permeability.
Question 46
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The nurse is managing the pain of a patient with burns. The provider has
prescribed opiates to be given intramuscularly. The nurse contacts the provider
to change the prescription to intravenous administration because
Select one:
a. Burn pain is so severe it requires relief by the fastest route available.
b. Tissue edema may interfere with drug absorption of injectable routes.
c. Intramuscular injections cause additional skin disruption.
d. Hypermetabolism limits effectiveness of medications administered intramuscularly.
Question 47
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The optimal measurement of intravascular fluid status during the immediate
fluid resuscitation phase of burn treatment is
Select one:
a. Serum potassium
b. Hourly intake and urine output
c. Daily weight
d. Blood urea nitrogen.
Question 48
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An autograft is used to optimally treat a partial- or full-thickness wound that
Select all that apply
Select one or more:
a. Involves the face, hands, or feet.
b. Involves a joint.
c. Is infected.
d. Requires less than 2 weeks for healing.
Question 49
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The nurse is caring for a patient who has circumferential full-thickness burns of
his forearm. A priority in the plan of care is
Select one:
a. To splint the forearm.
b. Active or passive range-of-motion exercises every hour.
c. To keep the extremity in a dependent position.
d. To prepare for an escharotomy as a prophylactic measure.
Question 50
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Tissue damage from burn injury activates an inflammatory response that
increases the patient’s risk for
Select one:
a. Acute kidney injury.
b. Stress ulcers
c. Acute respiratory distress syndrome.
d. Infection
Question 51
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A patient with a 60% burn in the acute phase of treatment develops a tense
abdomen, decreasing urine output, hypercapnia, and hypoxemia. Based on this
assessment, the nurse anticipates interventions to evaluate and treat the patient
for
Select one:
a. Acute respiratory distress syndrome.
b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation disorder.
c. Intra-abdominal hypertension.
d. Acute kidney injury.
Question 52
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The nurse is planning care to meet the patient’s pain management needs related
to burn treatment. The patient is alert, oriented, and follows commands. The
pain is worse during the day, when various treatments are scheduled. Which
statement to the provider best indicates the nurse’s knowledge of pain
management for this patient?
Select one:
a. “The patient’s pain is often unrelieved. It would be best if we can schedule the
opioids around the clock.”
b. “Can we ask the music therapist to come by each morning to see if that will help
the patient’s pain?”
c. “The patient’s pain is often unrelieved. I suggest that we also add benzodiazepines
to the opioids around the clock.”
d. “The patient’s pain varies depending on the treatment given. Can we try patientcontrolled analgesia to see if that helps the patient better?”
Question 53
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Being present during a code can assist family members in:
Select one:
a. Documenting care that was provided
b. Taking a photo of the family member
c. Witnessing that everything has been done
d. Determining the need for a lawsuit
Question 54
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The nurse recognizes which statement as a potential ethical issue?
Select one:
a. “If the breathing machine is helping my mother, why is the doctor asking me about
removing the breathing tube?”
b. . “The physician explained my mother’s poor prognosis.”
c. “My mother has designated my brother to make decisions.”
d.
e. “Can I assist with some of my mother’s care?”
Question 55
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The nurse assesses that there is significant disagreement among family members
about what course of treatment is best for the patient. What would be the best
response by the nurse?
Select one:
a. “You need to come to a decision quickly and let us know what you want.”
b.
“Could we hold a family conference so that we can develop the best plan of care for
your loved one?”
c.
“ Which one of you is the patient’s surrogate to make the decision?”
d. “Perhaps you should consult with your pastor or priest.”
e.
Question 56
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The nurse asks a patient with chest pain if it travels to the neck or shoulders.
This is an assessment of:
Select one:
a. Quality
b. Radiation
c. Postion
d. Severity
Question 57
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Patients who are not able to meet their nutritional needs orally should be started
on enteral nutrition within what time frame?
Select one:
a. 24-48 hours
b. 6-12 hours
c. 5 days
d. 12-24 hours
Question 58
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A patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation is receiving I.V. albumin,
which
Select one:
a. is isotonic
b. decreases intravascular volume
c. increases intravascular volume
d. increases intersitital volume
Question 59
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Which patient would benefit the most from central venous/right atrial pressure
monitoring?
Select one:
a. Patient admitted with a bowel obstruction
b. Patient taking routine doses of furosemide
c. Patient receiving two units of blood
d. Patient admitted in cardiogenic shock
Question 60
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Interpret these ABGs; patient has a history of COPD: pH 7.37, PaCO2 50 mm
Hg, bicarbonate 30 mEq/L; SpO2 93%
Select one:
a. Combined metabolic and respiratory acidosis
b. Compensated respiratory acidosis
c. Compensated metabolic alkalosis
d. Partly compensated respiratory alkalosis
Question 61
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The nurse is caring for a patient being treated with therapeutic hypothermia
post-CPR. Which order should the nurse question?
Select one:
a. Continuously monitor EEG and ECG
b. Draw serum electrolytes stat
c. Record tympanic temperature every hour
d. Measure blood glucose every 2 hours
Question 62
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Which liver transplant patient being cared for in the ICU is exhibiting signs of
acute rejection?
Select one:
a. Patient with a CVP of 6 mm Hg
b. Patient with dark urine and jaundice
c. Patient with postoperative pain 6/10
d. Patient with temp of 99.0° F and thirst
Question 63
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The nurse admits a 35-year-old patient to the emergency department following a
3-day history of nausea and vomiting. Vital signs assessed by the nurse include a
BP of 70/50 mm Hg, HR 145 beats/min, RR 36 breaths/min, and SpO2 of 92% on
room air. The nurse recognizes which classification of shock?
Select one:
a. Anaphylactic
b. Cardiogenic
c. Hypovolemic
d. Obstructive
Question 64
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Arterial blood gas alterations in pneumonia include which of the following?
Select one:
a. Hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis
b. Normal values
c. Hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis
d. Normal oxygen and respiratory acidosis
Question 65
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Which intervention is most important in assessing fluid balance in the patient
with AKI?
Select one:
a. Intake and Output
b. estimated gfr
c. Daily weight
d. Serum creatinine
Question 66
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The nurse is preparing to admit a patient from the ED who has sustained a
complete spinal cord lesion at the C5 level. When planning the patient’s care,
which nursing intervention is most important?
Select one:
a. Give small, frequent feedings.
b. Apply warming devices as needed.
c. Assist with passive range-of-motion.
d. Perform hourly incentive spirometry.
Question 67
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The greatest risk of GI bleeding is:
Select one:
a. Infection
b. Anemia
c. Increased cardiac output
d. Hypovolemia
Question 68
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A patient suddenly becomes unresponsive as you're speaking to him and develops
generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Your priority is to:
Select one:
a. Notify the primary care provider immediately.
b. Administer intravenous diazepam.
c. Establish an airway.
d. Perform a rapid neurologic exam.
Question 69
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While caring for a patient who is experiencing a postoperative hemorrhage, the
healthcare provider notes the rhythm observed on the electrocardiogram (EKG)
does not produce a pulse. Which actions should the healthcare provider initiate
first?
Select one:
a. Defibrillation
b. Administer epinephrine
c. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
d. Syncronized cardioversion
Question 70
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The healthcare provider is caring for a patient on a ventilator with an
endotracheal tube in place. What assessment data indicate the tube has migrated
too far down the trachea?
Select one:
a. Low pressure alarm sounds
b. High pressure alarm sounds
c. Decreased breath sounds on the left side of the chest
d. Increased crackles bilaterally
Question 71
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A patient has a vitamin K deficiency. Which of the following lab results would be
expected for a patient with this deficiency?
Select one:
a. Low platelets
b. Prolonged international normalized ration (INR)
c. Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
d. Normal prothrombin time (PT)
Question 72
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A clinician is providing education to a patient with a recent diagnosis of a
transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which of the statements by the patient indicates
that the patient understands the information?
Select one:
a. “Because TIAs don’t cause permanent damage, I do not need to worry if I have
another one.”
b. “TIAs are usually caused by large bleeds in the brain that resolve on their own.”
c. “It is important for you to seek medical attention immediately if you experience
these symptoms again because they could mean that you are having a stroke.”
d. “Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are often caused by small bleeds in the brain
that resolve on their own.”
Question 73
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After falling from a 10-foot ladder, a patient is brought to the emergency
department. The patient is alert, reports back pain, and difficulty moving the
lower extremities. Which additional observation is an indication the patient may
be experiencing neurogenic shock?
Select one:
a. Poor skin turgor
b. Cool and pale skin
c. Increased systolic blood pressure
d. Bradycardia
Question 74
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The healthcare provider is teaching a patient who has been newly diagnosed with
second-degree AV block Mobitz type I. The healthcare provider determines
teaching has been successful when the patient makes which of the following
statements?
Select one:
a. “I will take my pulse each day before taking my beta blocker medication”
b. “If I have symptoms, I will feel tired or I might have chest pain”
c. “I will need to learn to use oxygen therapy at home”
d. “Each day I will eat foods that are high in vitamin K”
Question 75
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Nursing management of the patient with angina is directed toward:
Select one:
a. assessment of history of previous anginal episodes
b. Immediate administration of nitrates
c. assessment and documentation of chest pain episodes
d. administration of prophylactic lidocaine for ventricular ectopy